ASCP-MLT Online Practice Questions and Answers

Set of comprehensive safety guidelines designed to protect patients and health care workers

A. Standard Precautions

B. Universal blood precautions

C. Microscope

D. Transmission precautions

Each of the drugs/drug classes listed above have been known to cause drug-induced hemolytic anemia, although cephalosporins are the MOST COMMON cause. Cephalosporins can cause drug-induced hemolytic anemia when a patient produces antibodies to the particular cephalosporin drug in the presence of red blood cells. The drugs can alter the membrane appearance of the red blood cells, causing the body to mistake them as foreign. Complement becomes activated due to these antibodies; red cells are then destroyed causing hemolytic anemia. Dark urine, caused by intravascular hemolysis, is one of the most common symptoms associated with this condition.

Which one of the following drugs/drug classes is the MOST COMMON cause of drug- induced hemolytic anemia?

A. Levodopa

B. Quinidine

C. Cephalosporins

D. Levofloxacin

E. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)

Hives and rash usually indicate an allergic reaction. Hematuria is due to a variety of causes. Fever and chills usually indicate a febrile reaction. Positive DAT due to conditions other than sensitization to red cell alloantigens is not uncommon. Therefore a positive DAT in the posttransfusion specimen with a negative DAT in the pretransfusion specimen is more likely to indicate alloimmunization.

The most definite indication that a patient has been sensitized to a specific red cell antigen is:

A. Hives and rash

B. A positive posttransfusion DAT in a patient with a previously negative DAT

C. A positive posttransfusion DAT in a patient with a previously positive DAT

D. Hemoglobinuria

Primary- Target glands (such as thymus, thyroid, parathyroid, etc.) Secondary- Pituitary gland Tertiary- Hypothalamus Match the type of endocrine dysfunction with the appropriate organ:

1.

Target gland

2.

Pituitary gland

3.

Hypothalamus

A. Secondary

B. Primary

C. Tertiary

Estriol levels in conjunction with hCG and AFP can be obtained during pregnancy to:

A. Assess the risk of Down's syndrome

B. Assess fetomaternal function

C. Assess for multiple gestations

D. Assess for maternal diabetes mellitus

The activities conducted in a laboratory with a certificate of waiver include:

A. tests that are simple to perform and have an insignificant risk for error

B. moderate- or high-complexity lab testing until the lab is determined by survey to be in compliance

C. high complexity tests only

D. physicians to perform microscopy only

The characteristic that distinguishes vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium and Enterococcus faecalis from other Enterococcus species is their lack of motility.

Enterococci are all catalase-negative. Growth on bile esculin agar and in 6.5% salt broth are two characteristics that have commonly been used to identify Enterococcus to the genus level. A positive esculin in combination with a positive PYR

reaction is another approach to presumptive identification.

Which one of these characteristics distinguishes vancomycin-resistant Enterococcus faecium and Enterococcus faecalis from other Enterococcus species?

A. PYR positive reaction

B. Non-motility

C. Catalase negative

D. Growth on bile esculin agar

This antibody is found in the serum of Le(a-b-) secretors.

Which one of these Lewis blood group system phenotypes usually produces anti-Lea?

A. Le(a+b+)

B. Le(a+b-)

C. Le(a--b+)

D. Le(a--b-)

The FTA-ABS is used to confirm that a positive non-treponemal test like RPR is not the result of a biological false positive, which occur in about 1 to 10 percent of the population.

A positive RPR test and a negative FTA-ABS test is most likely the result of:

A. Primary syphilis

B. Secondary syphilis

C. Latent syphilis

D. False positive reaction

A. releasing heparin

B. binding fibrinogen

C. binding calcium

D. acting as an antithrombin agent