500-451 Online Practice Questions and Answers

Which option can be a source of PI Assurance data?

A. MPA on Catalyst 6500 Series Switches

B. Catalyst 3850 Series Switch interface status

C. NetFlow on Catalyst 4500 Series Switch

D. ISE client join statistics

E. WLC SNMP traps

When configuring the RADIUS server between ISE and the network access device, there are many different types of NADs. Which option is the NAD?

A. Cat2960 Access Switches

B. CAP-3600 Access Point in Local mode

C. CT 5508 Wireless LAN Controller

D. Cisco Prime Infrastructure

E. AnyConnect wireless client

In the Cisco Unified Wireless Network infrastructure, which combination of devices and/or features best accomplishes high availability?

A. backup controllers and client SSO

B. backup controllers and LAG

C. N+1 and client state replication

D. N+1 and backup controllers

When the Cisco Catalyst 3850 is configured as a wireless mobility agent, what must be true?

A. Cisco ISE must be joined to Microsoft AD.

B. Access points must be connected directly to the Catalyst 3850.

C. Access points may be connected anywhere in the network.

D. The mobility controller must be CT5760.

Which statement about single SSID wireless BYOD is true?

A. uses only secure wireless

B. has a dedicated open SSID for onboarding provisioning

C. has a separate secure SSID for enhanced security on the network

D. supports guests and employees and is the preferred method

A customer is configuring the IP SLA Embedded Event Manager applet. What is the meaning of this configuration line within the applet: "event track 100 state down"?

A. Track 100 down state events and create a syslog message when the 100th down state is detected.

B. The tracking event "100" configured separately is used to detect the down state.

C. If there is a down state for 100 seconds, trigger the applet actions.

D. Stop tracking the interface if it flaps more than 100 times.

A network administrator is using the Embedded Event Manager, which is supporting multiple actions initiated from the script. Which two policy actions can be used within the EEM? (Choose two)

A. Execute a Tcl script.

B. Send an email.

C. Run another policy.

D. Hot swap the supervisor.

E. Manually send an SNMP trap.

Which step is one of the typical configuration steps when configuring Flow Exporter for Prime Infrastructure 2.0 or higher?

A. Set the IP address to export the Flexible NetFlow cache entry to a destination system.

B. Configure the source IP address interface for each interface part of Flexible NetFlow exporter.

C. Configure the TCP transport protocol and a TCP port number 1991 for a Flexible NetFlow flow exporter.

D. Configure the TCP transport protocol and a TCP port number 9991 for a Flexible NetFlow flow exporter.

What is ISE profiling?

A. a feature used to identify the endpoints based on network data obtained from a number of enabled probes

B. an ISE function used for applying security templates to endpoints when ISE is integrated with Cisco Prime Infrastructure

C. a dynamic policy feature that uses a number of enabled probes to apply the correct ACL to roaming wireless endpoints

D. a form used for self-onboarding of wireless devices

Which option describes the benefits of a secure BYOD architecture using SGT?

A. complex network design and lower operational costs

B. eliminates ACL explosion and offloads filtering to ASA for rich and scalable policy rule automation

C. complex network design and topology dependent segmentation using Security Group

D. Segmentation using Security Group is topology dependent and offloads filtering to ASA for rich and scalable policy rule automation.